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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which of the following describes what is meant by the ITIL Service Strategy component?
A. Understanding the intended customer and what services are required.
B. Defining processes required to manage the solution.
C. Ensuring changes are designed to meet customer expectations.
D. Designing the solution to the ITIL specifications.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The objective of ITIL Service Strategy is to decide on a strategy to serve customers. Starting from an assessment of customer needs and the market place, the Service Strategy lifecycle stage determines which services the IT organization is to offer and what capabilities need to be developed. Its ultimate goal is to make the IT organization think and act in a strategic manner.
References: http://wiki.en.it-processmaps.com/index.php/ITIL_Service_Strategy

NEW QUESTION: 2
After a Cisco UCS Manager upgrade, you discover issues relating to the IQN of several service profiles.
Which two options are possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. duplicate service profiles
B. a duplicate IQN across multiple service profiles
C. incorrect VSAN settings
D. a duplicate IQN within a service profile
E. an unsuccessful upgrade
Answer: B,D

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the effects embedded options would have on the price and the yield of the underlying bond?
I). The yield on putable bonds will always be lower than the yield on an otherwise identical option free bond.
II). The greater the interest rate volatility assumed, the lower will be the price of an option free bond.
III). Option adjusted spread, in general, is simply the compensation to an investor for bearing credit and liquidity risk.
IV). For an option free bond, the zero volatility (or static) spread will be higher than its corresponding option adjusted spread.
A. I, II and IV.
B. I and III.
C. II and IV.
Answer: B
Explanation:
I is true because the price of putable bonds are always more expensive than non-putable bonds (this is because the put in the bond would be an attractive feature to the investor - i.e. He has to pay for it). Consequently, this higher price for a putable bond will translate into a lower yield.
II is incorrect because interest rate volatility only has an impact on the embedded options. In other words, as the interest rate volatility is assumed to increase, both the call and the put values will increase.
However, in the absence of these options, the bond price will not be affected
III is true because option adjusted spread is the spread that is left once the adverse effects that a call option will have on the investor's return, have been stripped away.
IV is incorrect because for an option free bond, the zero volatility (or static) spread and its corresponding option adjusted spread will be equal. The only difference between the two measures is the incremental yield due to call risk. Hence, in the absence of this call risk, the two measures of spread will produce the same result.

NEW QUESTION: 4
Redundant spoke-SDPs are used between 2 Metro networks for redundancy. How can load balancing be achieved across the redundant spoke-SDPs?
A. A single management VPLS using 802.1D-2004 can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services
B. A single management VPLS using RSTP can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services.
C. There is no way to have load balancing across redundant spoke-SDPs.
D. Two management VPLS using RSTP can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services.
Answer: D