SAP C_BCHCM_2502 Q&A - in .pdf

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  • Exam Name: SAP Certified Associate - Positioning SAP Business Suite via SAP SuccessFactors HCM Solutions
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NEW QUESTION: 1
If MPLS label packetn are nwapped, what happenn to the TTL value?
A. It in net to zero.
B. It in prenerved.
C. It in net to 255.
D. It in decremented.
Answer: D

NEW QUESTION: 2
When comparing the power produced by two athletes performing the back squat, the strength and conditioning professional should use which of the following formulae to calculate power?
A. Sets X rep X weight lifted
B. fore X distance
C. acceleration / force
D. Work / time
Answer: D

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which of the following is the function of the Hue tab in the HSL/Grayscale controls of Camera Raw?
Use controls in this tab to specify the contribution of each color range to the grayscale version of the image.
A. Changes the vividness or purity of the color.
B. Changes the brightness of the color range.
C. Changes the color.
D. Use controls in this tab to specify the contribution of each color range to the grayscale version of the image.
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 4
The present value of a 4 year ordinary annuity of $1000 per year starting in year 1 is the difference of
2 perpetuities.
Perpetuity 1 : $1000 per year starting in Year 1
Perpetuity 2: $1000 per year starting in 5 years time.
Given a 5% discount rate, the present value of this annuity is
A. $16,454.05.
B. $5,525.63.
C. $3545.95.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first payment for Perpetuity 1 is at t = 1 The first payment for Perpetuity 2 is at t = 5 The formula for the present value of a perpetuity is PV = A/r, where A = the annuity, and r = the rate. This formula is simple enough to use directly on your calculator. For Perpetuity 1, PV at t = 0 is = 1000/0.05 =
2 0,000 For Perpetuity 2, we need to find the present value at t = 0. To do so, we need to first find the present value at t = 5-1 = 4 since an ordinary annuity has its first payment one period away. This also applies to a perpetual annuity. A = 1000, r at period 5 = 0.06. Thus, PV = 1000/0.05 = 20,000. From the perspective of now i.e. t = 0, this amount of 20,000 can be considered a future value. Thus we now need to find the present value of this amount.
Using Texas Instruments BA II Plus: Don't forget to clear your memories using 2nd QUIT and 2nd CLR
WORK 20000 +- FV: FV = -20,000.00 4 N: N = 4.00 5 I/Y: I/Y = 5.00 CPT PV7: PV = 16,454.05
Using Hewlett Packard hp 12 C f CLEAR FIN: 0.00000000 f CLEAR REG: 0.00000000 4 n: 4.00000000 5 i: 5.00000000 20000 CHS FV: - 20,000.00000 g END: - 20,000.00000 PV: 16,454.04950
The present value of the 4 - year annuity is x - PV(0) = 20,000 - 16,454.05 = 3,545.95.

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